Ok... Let's assume this is true (which I'll reiterate, that I contend assuming so is foolish). What happens when courts have interpretations of this "simple law?" Do the courts make an effort to keep things simple and in plain language? Or do lawyers and bureaucrats do what they can to drive unintuitive interpretations, but favorable to their cause, of otherwise plain language? Are European laws such as this subject to the interpretive lens of case law? If so, the best intentions of legislators may only be secondary relative to the actual rulings and unintended consequence of their laws. The problem with thinking like yours is that it dismisses all of this messy reality in favor maintaining the idealism that might have motivated public support of the law.
Those that have to follow those laws need to care about the mess.
You should probably do some trivial research. No, there is no case law in most of Europe, for sure in none of EU.